WI Thomas Cramner's Prayer Book of 1549 was nothing more than an English translation of the Sarum rite?
In OTL, Cramner intentionally removed important parts of Catholic theology from the first Prayer Book, such as the Sacrifice of the Mass, prayers for the dead, and transubstantiation, for example. He imparted a much greater Reformed flavor to the service. He did, however, preserve to a good degree the organization of the Sarum rite.
In ATL, let's assume that the 1549 Prayer Book was a straight translation of the Sarum, with the Catholic theology intact. The people maintained their veneration of Mary, plenty of saint's days remained on the calendar, iconoclasm did not occur, and the other sacraments remained largely the same.
Would this scenario hold back Lutheran and Calvinist influences in England? Was the Protestantization of England inevitable? Would Mary Queen of Scots have an easier reign? Would Protestants be allowed to practice their faith in a country that remained largely Catholic in theology and liturgy but without union with Rome?
In OTL, Cramner intentionally removed important parts of Catholic theology from the first Prayer Book, such as the Sacrifice of the Mass, prayers for the dead, and transubstantiation, for example. He imparted a much greater Reformed flavor to the service. He did, however, preserve to a good degree the organization of the Sarum rite.
In ATL, let's assume that the 1549 Prayer Book was a straight translation of the Sarum, with the Catholic theology intact. The people maintained their veneration of Mary, plenty of saint's days remained on the calendar, iconoclasm did not occur, and the other sacraments remained largely the same.
Would this scenario hold back Lutheran and Calvinist influences in England? Was the Protestantization of England inevitable? Would Mary Queen of Scots have an easier reign? Would Protestants be allowed to practice their faith in a country that remained largely Catholic in theology and liturgy but without union with Rome?